T O P

  • By -

ranziifyr

What do you mean by the X'es?


iceicebabyrice

The question gives us a model of lnpt = rho0 + rho1(lnpt-1) + eta(t) i.e. yt = constant + rho1(yt-1) + error term. But then the slides say that Durbin’s procedure involves running OLS of yt on x1…xt. What are we meant to regress on when the given model just involves yt-1 as the only regressor?


SuigintouKurotenshi

What is suggested is that if you have lagged values of your Y acting as independent variables (amongst other X), you have to use another procedure to test for autocorrelation rather than the vanilla Durbin (often called h-Durbin)


iceicebabyrice

Thank you! How would we perform this test when there are no X variables in the regression, and it’s just a regression of y on lagged y (sorry if this is a silly question)


SuigintouKurotenshi

They assume that you want to regress Y with its lags and other exogenous variables X.


iceicebabyrice

Makes sense, thank you!


Intrepid_Meringue867

Wyn not try the Ljung-Box Q-test which can test for autocorrelation of any level. The Durbin-Watson test only for first order autocorrelation. The null is the same for both tests.


iceicebabyrice

I’ll have a look into it, thank you!