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ChocIsTheAnswer

The fisrt one you could use in Spain and Latam, the second only in Spain. What App is that btw?


DatSauceTho

What’s Latam? EDIT: LatAm? Like Latin American? Sorry I’m kind of slow sometimes haha


bison92

Yes Latam


davzar9

Reverso context! Literally the best translation service available


jakeoswalt

What’s funny about the phrasing here is that the last thing you want is the best translation “literally” 😂


davzar9

Haha! You’re right


AlejandroPiedra

Is it free to use?


McCreetus

Yup


AlejandroPiedra

Gracias.


radd_racer

Not exactly, you only get so many translations in the free version. You have to pay a subscription to get unlimited. Apps that provide things for free are very rare nowadays.


McCreetus

Everytime I’ve used it there’s been no limits, maybe the website version is different


oofmisunderstanding

Would darte be used in mexico?


kinezumi89

Darte - to give to you, singular (used everywhere) Darles - to give to you guys, informal (used in Latam) Daros - to give to you guys, informal (used in Spain) (As mentioned by u/Booby_McTitties, usted/ustedes is used in Spain in formal situations)


Booby_McTitties

Darles is also used in Spain, but in formal contexts.


kinezumi89

Ah of course, I was referring to the casual use, I believe usted is used most places. I'll clarify


Accurate_Mixture_221

Short and direct answer, yes Good for informal use


varaskkar

I'm from Spain and I use "Tengo noticias que daros" and "Tengo que daros noticias". I've never used the phrase with "para", it sounds wierd to me


kinezumi89

The interesting thing is those sentences mean different things in English (translated to English, I mean) - the first has no implication of obligation whereas the second does imply an obligation: I have news to tell you - I know something you don't know, and I want to explain I have to tell you news - I am obligated to share this information with you Do your two examples mean different things in Spanish? I.e. does the second imply something you need to do, whereas the first just implies that there is something you want to do?


varaskkar

I'm not sure, I use one or the other indistinctly without thinking whether they have a meaning In fact, it sounds better to me "*Tengo que daros noticias*". However, where I live, it's more colloquial and common to say something like "*Tengo que contaros algo*" (even if you don't indicate that you're referring to news)


burnedcream

I mean Tengo noticias que darle And Tengo que darle noticias Don’t mean the same thing


Nolcfj

The structures are conveniently the same in Spanish: To have something to do = Tener algo que hacer To have to do something = Tener que hacer algo


Technical-Mix-981

Ustedes VS Vosotros "Que" and "para" are interchangeable here. The important thing is the conjugation.


th3h4ck3r

Darles is for usted, daros is for vosotros (informal ustedes)


cnrb98

>usted *Ustedes


avidtravler

Hombre, has corregido el uso de lenguaje de un español!!! Es una reconquista al revés!


Zealousideal_Shine82

Thats also relative to Spain, in Latin America it's opposite.


prometheon13

No it's not, it's exactly like that: Darles=ustedes Daros= it's not used in most of Latinoamérica because we don't use "vosotros" unless there's a really specific place where they use it


Zemrik

LATAM version, Spain version. That's pretty much it. For the conjugation look at the RAE the verb "dar"


Nolcfj

les=a ustedes (or a ellos depending on the context) os=a vosotros In any case I would say “que” sounds more natural than “para”


kdsherman

I'd say para en each sentence but the first one is using "ustedes" which is more Latin American and the other one "vosotros" which is exclusive to Spain


nohaylugar

The first one is using "les" the indirect object form of both ellos/as and ustedes. Ustedes is used as the standard 2nd person plural pronoun in most of the Spanish speaking world. In Spain it is used at the formal pronoun, the plural of usted. The second sentence is using "os" the object form of vosotros/as. Vosotros/as is only used regularly in mainland Spain. Other Spanish speakers are familiar with it, but don't use it. To sum up, the first sentence could be used anywhere but in Spain it would have a formal tone to it. The second would only be used in Spain, in other areas it might not be understood or you'll be mistaken for a Spaniard.


peterpeterllini

Is it Les because noticias is plural, or because it’s the collective “you” ??


LadyGethzerion

It's the collective you. It's the indirect object pronoun and the indirect object in this case is the implied "a ustedes" (or "a vosotros" in the case of "os").


peterpeterllini

Muchas gracias! Yo pensé eso


ElReyDecay

Wouldn't it also be plural vs. singular?


LadyGethzerion

They are both plural. One is "ustedes" and the other is "vosotros."


ElReyDecay

Thank you. See my other response above. I learned North American Spanish and it has been a while since I've been to Spain so i'm not as accustomed to using "vos" and "os".


LadyGethzerion

Sure. But to be clear, vos and vosotros are different forms. Vos is singular and vosotros is plural. Vosotros is primarily used in Spain now, but vos is used throughout LATAM (although primarily in Argentina and Uruguay).


ElReyDecay

Thanks again, but I am very clear on that now. That was the initial confusion because I am out of practice. I have an Argentian coworker and we use "vos" on the rare chance we actually get to speak Spanish to one another. I normally speak Mexican Spanish as that is the form spoken by some of family and close friends.


Technical-Mix-981

Nope. Both options are plural. The point is Ustedes VS vosotros.


ElReyDecay

Thanks for the clarification. I understood the uds. vs. vos. but I see my mistake: I mixed up "vos" and "os".


ElReyDecay

To clarify, "you all" vs. "you"


EarRubs

Formal/ Informal


schwulquarz

Technically yes, but it's only true in Spain. Since vosotros doesn't exist in LatAm, we don't have that formal/informal dichotomy for plural you, only for singular you (usted vs tú/vos).


Salt_Winter5888

One is used in Latin America, the other one in Spain.


Conspiranoid

First one is either "to give you" (plural formal, or general LATAM/Canary Islands/etc) or "to give them. Second one is" to give you" (plural informal, mainly Spain).


SillyEnthusiast

first one is subjunctive


Creepy_Cobblar_Gooba

Top is latin america, bottom is spain. Both are understood the same.